I'm used to reading in my mother tongue, but I don't enjoy reading books translated into Spanish from Spain. It seems to me quite a different language, though it's very rich in its form.
I hope I'll get Belle de Jour's original book in English soon (to check the translation, something I always do to compare languages).
Spanish from Spain sounds different to me when I think of verb patterns and vocabulary, somewhat archaic, even though it's the language used by master writers. Anyway, it sounds odd when you receive an invitation to a wedding written in that kind of Spanish, especially if those who were invited live in Argentina.
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I am curious. How different is Spanish from Spain from the Spanish spoken in Argentina?
Are the differences more pronounced in the spoken language than in the written language?
Hi Chitty, It's really different.
The Spanish spoken in Argentina is one branch, so as to say, of the Spanish spoken in Spain. We use the language that was brought to America by Columbus. This language was the one spoken in Castile, a region of Spain.
Spanish speakers from all over the countries in America (all of them different, of course) understand perfectly well the language from Spain and the other countries.
What varies in Spain is the use of tense (they tend to use more perfect tenses, both in written and spoken language)and the vocabulary (richer in Spain, at least for me). They use some old forms we don't use and some old conventions. One example of that is that we learn the Personal Pronoun "you" in plural (meaning "vosotros"), but we never use it (we use "Ustedes" instead). Our way is correct, polite, but not archaic.
I hope the answer helps!
It does help. Thanks.
It is the same way in which English has developed in the former British colonies. We are taught one form of English in school (literary English), but in our daily lives we use and speak it differently. We also incorporated many linguistic influences from other languages spoken in our country.
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